The reason I'm asking is because I was reading this New York Times article: https://www.nytimes.com/2020/08/27/magazine/korea-japanese-occupation-surrender-ww2.html and in the article, there was a picture of a Japanese instructor teaching Koreans how to write in Japanese.This picture:https://static01.nyt.com/images/2020/09/06/multimedia/27ww2-korea-03/merlin_176164095_e433a392-9aa3-427b-81aa-496411431e9c-superJumbo.jpg?quality=90&auto=webp
The thing I noticed about this is that they were being taught entirely in katakana, far different than when I was in classes learning hiragana instead. This made me wonder if katakana was actually more widely used back then, or at least if it served a specific purpose (a historical reason) that could explain why they weren't using hiragana.