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In this answer it is said that the usage of なくて is narrower than ないで(ないで can always replace なくて according to the logic explained and is ambiguous because of that)

But in this question, the answer says that ないで cannot replace なくて in the sentence discussed.

What is the reason behind that?

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    Please read the first answer again. It doesn't say "ないで can always replace なくて". That's a logial fallacy. It refers to 二者択一 and 付帯状況 but not reason/cause, which is the key to solve the problem in the second link. – user4092 Dec 4 '18 at 8:01

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