7,801 reputation
2342
bio website
location
age
visits member for 3 years, 4 months
seen May 11 at 12:44

Jun
27
revised The reason for using 何も+negative, but 何でも+positive
edited tags; edited title
Jun
27
comment Are there cases when two or more particles will occur next to each other without intervening lexical words?
@hippietrail: including the interjection particles ね and さ? If we put ね aside... Well you do have わよ, and の is commonly used before the particles with a meaning of question or uncertainty: か、かな and かしら. And かな itself is essentially a combination of two sentence-final particles: か and な.
Jun
27
comment Why is は pronounced as わ when used as a topic particle?
@Kafka: Yeah, it does explain all the voiced/unvoiced mess in ハ行. :)
Jun
27
answered Is there a study available on the similarities between Japanese and Turkish grammars?
Jun
27
answered Are there cases when two or more particles will occur next to each other without intervening lexical words?
Jun
27
comment Using な particle after common nouns (non na-adjectives)
I'm not quite sure how a native speaker gets what they did on Dictionary@goo, but the line between な-adjectives and noun is definitely blurry, so it wouldn't be too surprising.
Jun
26
revised How does ほど work in the 〜すれば〜するほど construction?
added 616 characters in body
Jun
26
answered How does ほど work in the 〜すれば〜するほど construction?
Jun
26
answered Can we optionally include (or exclude) an を particle in between the noun of the する-verb and the する itself?
Jun
26
comment What does the “〜やしない” conjugation mean?
@Lukman: I don't think so. As far as I know, it's just a slightly elided form of は.
Jun
25
answered Are there inflections/endings that can be applied to verbs but not i-adjectives? (or vice versa)
Jun
25
comment What's the difference between 迷う and 紕う?
@Dave: (somewhat meta) shouldn't your comments be made to an answer. We should leave as few unanswered questions as possible, and this seems to me to be a real answer (紕う is just an older/uncommon reading). I've seen it with other questions here too, that sometime remain unanswered although they are really answered in the comments.
Jun
25
comment Is Japanese really an agglutinative language?
@hippietrail: I mostly judge on what I know. The only agglutinative languages I know to a satisfying degree (to make some assumptions about them) are Japanese, Korean, Swahili and Quechua (and I know Japanese far better than the other three :)). It might make a my view a bit biased, but that would be true for just about anyone. Anyway, linguists usually tend to have many different opinions on the same subject, though when you inspect things closely, you'll often find the difference is not so huge.
Jun
25
comment Is Japanese really an agglutinative language?
And more about case: one of the most confusing things here is that some generative linguists use "case" an entirely different (and separate) sense from "morphological case". I'm not strong on generative linguistics (frankly, it kinda bores the heck out of me :)), but from what I understand those cases really refer to the syntactical role of a noun phrase (NP in generative lingo) in the sentence. This is similar to what a morphological case usually does, but for the generative syntacticians they exist in every language - they are just marked differently.
Jun
25
comment Is Japanese really an agglutinative language?
As for standard order - I more or less meant what you've meant as rigid order. But being "rigid" is really relative. You're definitely going to find different orders in different dialects, and you might find a few exceptions in any agglutinative languages (since, as I've said, there are no pure languages). I think these views are rather accepted, but Wikipedia is often bad at laying out these things.
Jun
25
comment Is Japanese really an agglutinative language?
@hippietrail: It's often said about Hungarian, but Hungarian grammatical tradition was probably highly influenced by Latin. The fact is that adjectives in Hungarian don't agree by case, while Finnish adjectives do. The Hungarian adjectives may have done the same thing in the past (since both languages are part of the same Finno-Ugric family), but I don't know enough about these languages to tell.
Jun
25
answered What does the “〜やしない” conjugation mean?
Jun
25
comment Is Japanese really an agglutinative language?
@hippietrail: nouns in Japanese are not internally inflected, but they are agglutinated. -no, -mo, -de, -ni even the copula are all really just suffixes, and they form a single unit with the nouns they follow. The only difference between nouns and verbs is that nouns have just a single base to which all these suffixes attach, while verbs have several different bases (such as Mizenkei, Rentaikei, etc.)
Jun
25
answered Is Japanese really an agglutinative language?
Jun
24
revised Can I help you?
deleted 2 characters in body